What are infrared sensors?
They rely on infrared light, or heat radiation. They look for changes in infrared radiation in a room or space and alert when that change occurs.
Name at least five social engineering techniques.
Phishing, vishing, smishing, misinformation, disinformation, business email compromise, pretexting, watering hole attack, impersonation, brand impersonation, and typosquatting.
What is the difference between misinformation and disinformation?
Misinformation is incorrect information, often resulting from getting facts wrong. Disinformation is incorrect, inaccurate, or outright false information that is intentionally provided to serve an individual or organization’s goals.
What are three common questions that come into play when we assess a threat intelligence source or a specific threat intelligence notification?
- Is it timely?
- Is the information accurate?
- Is the information relevant?
What is resource exhaustion?
Resource exhaustion is when systems consume all of the memory, storage, processing time, or other resources available to them, rendering the system disabled or crippled for other uses.
Describe how RFID cloning attacks work.
RFID cloning attacks work by cloning an RFID tag or card.
What ensures that acquired images are intact?
Hashing and validating
Name four use cases for forensics.
Forensics may be used for investigations, incident response, intelligence, and counterintelligence.
What are two types of proxy servers?
Forward proxies are placed between clients and servers, and they accept requests from clients and send them forward to servers. Reverse proxies are placed between servers and clients, and they are used to help with load balancing and caching of content.
What are two types of advanced security camera capabilities?
Motion recognition and object detection
List and explain two categories of scalability and their advantages.
Vertical scalability uses a more capable system or device and helps when all tasks or functions need to be handled on the same system or infrastructure. Horizontal scaling uses more smaller systems or
devices. A horizontally scaled system can take advantage of the ability to transparently add and remove more resources, allowing it to adjust as needs grow or shrink and allows opportunities for transparent upgrades, patching, and even incident response.
Name four common mobile device deployment and management models.
BYOD (bring your own device), CYOD (choose your own device) COPE (Corporate owned, personally enabled), and corporate owned.
What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric cryptography?
Symmetric cryptosystems use a shared secret key available to all users of the cryptosystem. Asymmetric cryptosystems use individual combinations of public and private keys for each user of the system.
What actor is most commonly associated with corporate espionage?
Competitors may engage in corporate espionage designed to steal sensitive information from your organization and use it to their own business advantage.
What kinds of potential downfalls does disk encryption bring?
If the encryption key is lost, the data on the drive will likely be unrecoverable since the same strong encryption that protects it will make it unlikely that you will be able to brute-force the key and acquire the data. Technical support can be more challenging, and data corruption or other issues can have a larger impact, resulting in unrecoverable data.
What are web application firewalls?
Security devices that are designed to be able to intercept, analyze, and apply rules to web traffic, including tools like database queries, APIs, and other web application tools.
What are common elements in a typical forensic report?
A summary of the forensic investigation and findings; an outline of the forensic process, including tools used and any assumptions that were made about the tools or process; a series of sections detailing the findings for each device or drive—accuracy is critical when findings are shared, and conclusions must be backed up with evidence and appropriate detail; and recommendations or conclusions in more detail than the summary included.
What security constraints do you need to take into account when you consider security for embedded systems?
The overall computational power and capacity of embedded systems is usually much lower than a traditional PC or mobile device; embedded systems may not connect to a network; without network connectivity, CPU and memory capacity, and other elements, authentication is also likely to be impossible; and embedded systems may be very low cost, but many are effectively very high cost because they are a component in a larger industrial or specialized device.
Name 10 attacker motivations.
Data exfiltration, espionage, service disruption, blackmail, financial gain, philosophical/political beliefs, ethical, revenge, disruption/chaos, and war.
Define due care.
It refers to the ongoing efforts to ensure that the implemented policies and controls are effective and continuously maintained.
List four standard agreements used in third-party risk management.
Master service agreements (MSA), service level agreements (SLAs), memorandum of understanding (MOU), memorandum of agreement (MOA), and business partners agreements (BPAs).
What is a bollard?
Bollards are posts or other obstacles that prevent vehicles from moving through an area. Bollards may look like posts, pillars, or even planters, but their purpose remains the same: preventing vehicle access.
What is a data subject?
An individual whose personal data is being processed.
What are four common methods of testing resilience and recovery controls?
Tabletop exercises, simulation exercises, parallel processing, and failover exercises
Give some examples of weak configurations.
The use of default settings that pose a security risk; the presence of default credentials or unsecured accounts, including both normal user accounts and unsecured root accounts with administrative privileges;
open ports and services that are not necessary to support normal system operations; and open permissions that allow users access that violates the principle of least privilege.
What category of information includes any information that uniquely identifies an individual person, including customers, employees, and third parties?
Personally identifiable information (PII) includes any information that uniquely identifies an individual person, including customers, employees, and third parties.
What type of attacker acts with authorization?
An authorized attacker is one who acts with authorization and seeks to discover security vulnerabilities with the intent of correcting them.
What term describes the means that an attacker uses to gain access to a system?
Threat vectors are the means that threat actors use to obtain access to a system.
What are two distinct goals of digital signature infrastructure?
Digitally signed messages assure the recipient that the message truly came from the claimed sender. They enforce nonrepudiation. Digitally signed messages assure the recipient that the message was not altered while in transit between the sender and recipient. This protects against both malicious modification and unintentional modification.
What is NFC and how is it most frequently used?
NFC, or near-field communication, is used for very short range communication between devices. You’ve likely seen NFC used for payment terminals using Apple Pay or Google Wallet using cell phones. NFC is limited to short range, meaning that it is not used to build networks of devices, and instead it is primarily used for low bandwidth, device to device purposes.
Identify the four key phases of a penetration test.
Initial access, privilege escalation, pivoting (lateral movement), and persistence.
After an event or incident, what process is used to determine why it occurred?
Root cause analysis is used to determine why an event or issue occurred.
List and explain two principles we need to apply in application resilience.
- Scalability says that applications should be designed so that computing resources they require may be incrementally added to support increasing demand.
- Elasticity goes a step further than scalability and says that applications should be able to automatically provision resources to scale when necessary and then automatically deprovision those resources to reduce capacity (and cost) when they are no longer needed.
What are four types of information-gathering tools included in the Security+ exam outline?
Honeypots are configured to appear to be vulnerable and are heavily instrumented to record what an attacker does. Honeynets are networks set up to collect information about network attacks. A honeyfile is an intentionally attractive file that contains unique, detectable data that is left in an area for attackers to take. Honeytokens are data intended to be attractive to attackers and are used to allow security professionals to track data.
List four incident response plan types.
Communication plans, stakeholder management plans, business continuity plans, and disaster recovery plans
What kinds of issues should security analysts be aware of when dealing with IoT devices?
Poor security practices including weak default settings, lack of network security (firewalls), exposed or vulnerable services, lack of encryption for data transfer, weak authentication, use of embedded credentials and insecure data storage; Short support lifespans; Vendor data handling practice issues.
List 5 common logs used by incident responders.
System logs, application logs, security logs, vulnerability scan output, network and security device logs, web logs, DNS logs, authentication logs, dump files, and VoIP and SIP logs.
List and explain three major types of authentication in modern Wi-Fi networks.
- Open networks do not require authentication or use encryption and often use a captive portal to obtain information from users.
- Preshared keys (PSK) require that a passphrase or key is shared with anybody who wants to use the network and provides encryption.
- Enterprise authentication relies on a RADIUS server and utilizes an EAP protocol for authentication.
What is the Linux dd command? Give an example to copy a drive mounted as /dev/sda to a file called example.img.
The Linux dd command is a command-line utility that allows you to create disk images for forensic or other purposes.
Example: dd if=/dev/sda of=example.img conv=noerror,sync
What is business email compromise?
Business email compromise (BEC) relies on using apparently legitimate email addresses to conduct scams and other attacks.
What are rootkits?
Malware specifically designed to allow attackers to access a system through a backdoor.
What allows engineers to interact with and modify cloud resources through their APIs?
Software-defined networking (SDN).
What term describes the original level of risk that exists before implementing any controls?
The inherent risk facing an organization is the original level of risk that exists before implementing any controls. Inherent risk takes its name from the fact that it is the level of risk inherent in the organization’s business.
List three common biometric technologies.
Fingerprints, retina scanning, iris recognition; facial recognition; voice recognition; vein recognition, and gait analysis
List some weaknesses of symmetric key cryptography.
Key exchange is a major problem; symmetric key cryptography does not implement nonrepudiation; the algorithm is not scalable; and keys must be regenerated often.
What are two primary models for generation of one-time passwords?
TOTP, or time-based one-time passwords and HMAC-based one-time password (HOTP).
What principle says that individuals should only be granted the minimum set of permissions necessary to carry out their job functions?
The principle of least privilege says that individuals should only be granted the minimum set of permissions necessary to carry out their job functions.
What is data minimization and how can we do it?
Data minimization techniques seek to reduce risk by reducing the amount of sensitive information that we maintain on a regular basis. The best way to achieve data minimization is to simply destroy data when it is no longer necessary to meet our original business purpose.
What is used to ensure that the organization that may be engaged in litigation retains relevant data?
A legal hold.
What is a data protection officer (DPO)?
The European Union’s General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) requires that every data controller designate a data protection officer (DPO) who bears overall responsibility for carrying out the organization’s data privacy efforts.
What is shadow IT?
IT implementations, systems, and services created through unofficial means, often by well-meaning employees or by employees outside of central IT.
What control should organizations put in place to ensure that successful ransomware infections do not incapacitate the company?
One of the most important defenses against ransomware is an effective backup system that stores files in a separate location that will not be impacted if the system or device it backs up is infected and encrypted by ransomware.
What is malware?
The term malware describes a wide range of software that is intentionally designed to cause harm to systems and devices, networks, or users.
What are two types of Bluetooth attacks and what are their differences?
Bluejacking sends unsolicited messages to Bluetooth-enabled devices. Bluesnarfing is unauthorized access to a Bluetooth device, typically aimed at gathering information like contact lists or other details the device contains.
Give three valuable information sources for reconciling scan results.
Log reviews from servers, applications, network devices, and other sources that might contain information about possible attempts to exploit detected vulnerabilities; security information and event management (SIEM) systems that correlate log entries from multiple sources and provide actionable intelligence; and configuration management systems that provide information on the operating system and applications installed on a system.
What is insecure direct object reference?
If the application does not perform authorization checks, the user may be permitted to view information that exceeds their authority. This situation is known as an insecure direct object reference.
What is the function of a hardware security module (HSM)?
HSMs manage encryption keys and perform cryptographic operations efficiently.
What does the social engineering principle of authority rely on?
Authority relies on the fact that most people will obey someone who appears to be in charge or knowledgeable, regardless of whether or not they actually are.
What are four key metrics in the BIA process?
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) is the expected amount of time between system failures. Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is the average amount of time to restore a system to its normal operating state after a failure. Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the amount of time that the organization can tolerate a system being down before it is repaired. Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the amount of data that the organization can tolerate losing during an outage.
What term is used to describe using cryptographic techniques to embed secret messages within another file, such as hiding a message within an image file?
Steganography is the art of using cryptographic techniques to embed secret messages within another file.
Name at least three authentication technologies.
Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP), Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP), Password Authentication Protocol (PAP), 802.1X, Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+), and Kerberos
What term refers to medical records maintained by health-care providers and other organizations that are subject to HIPAA?
Protected health information (PHI)
What are some examples of managerial controls?
Periodic risk assessments, security planning exercises, and the incorporation of security into the organization’s change management, service acquisition, and project management practices
What does the social engineering principle of intimidation rely on?
Intimidation relies on scaring or bullying an individual into taking a desired action.
What is a data steward?
An individual who carries out the intent of the data controller or stewardship responsibility but is responsible for the secure safekeeping of information.
What documentation is created to demonstrate that forensic data and artifacts were handled properly and that they were not modified or changed during the forensic process?
Chain-of-custody documentation.
How do developers provide a way to confirm the authenticity of their code to end users?
Through code signing. Developers digitally sign their code with their own private key and then browsers can use the developer’s public key to verify that signature and ensure that the code is legitimate and was not modified by unauthorized individuals.
What are three major types of disaster recovery sites used for site resilience?
Hot sites, warm sites, and cold sites
What do you call a document that provides mandatory requirements describing how an organization will carry out its information security policies?
A standard
Explain active/active vs. active/passive load balancers.
Active/active load balancer designs distribute the load among multiple systems that are online and in use at the same time. Active/passive load balancer designs bring backup or secondary systems online when an active system is removed or fails to respond properly to a health check.
What is a VPN?
A virtual private network (VPN) is a way to create a virtual network link across a public network that allows the endpoints to act as though they are on the same network.
What are cryptographic key management systems used for?
Cryptographic key management systems are used to store keys and certificates as well as to manage them centrally.
What term is used for a document that provides a high-level statement of management intent?
A policy
How do environmental attacks work?
Environmental attacks include attacks like targeting an organization’s heating and cooling systems, maliciously activating a sprinkler system, and similar actions.
What is an evil twin?
A malicious fake access point that is set up to appear to be a legitimate, trusted network.
What are two common NAC usage models?
Network access control (NAC) can use a software agent that is installed on the computer to perform security checks, or it may be agentless and run from a browser or via another means without installing software locally.
How do you calculate the impact score for a vulnerability under CVSS?
Impact score = the value of the scope metric * ISS
What is risk avoidance?
A risk management strategy where you change your business practices to completely eliminate the potential that a risk will materialize.
List the criteria that must be met for a compensating control to be satisfactory under PCI DSS.
Controls must meet the intent and rigor of the original requirement and must provide a similar level of defense, and must sufficiently offset the risk that the original PCI DSS requirement addressed. Existing PCI DSS requirements cannot be considered as compensating controls if they’re already required for other assessed items, existing requirements may be considered as compensating controls if they are required for another area but are not required for the item under review.
What are password vaults?
Software solutions that store, manage, and secure passwords and other information, allowing users to use strong passwords without memorizing dozens, or hundreds, of individual complex passwords.
What are microwave sensors?
Microwave sensors use a baseline for a room or space that is generated by detecting normal responses when the space is at a baseline. When those responses to the microwaves sent out by the sensor change, they will trigger. They can detect motion through materials that infrared sensors cannot.
What is crucial for managing and mitigating third-party risks?
Effective vendor monitoring is crucial for managing and mitigating third-party risks.
What is a data processor?
A service provider that processes personal information on behalf of a data controller.
What does segmentation accomplish?
Segmentation places sensitive systems on separate networks where they may communicate with each other but have strict restrictions on their ability to communicate with systems on other networks.
What are some examples of physical controls?
Fences, perimeter lighting, locks, fire suppression systems, and burglar alarms
Name some tools we can use in the process of data obfuscation.
Hashing, tokenization, and masking
What is the difference between an audit and an assessment?
Audits are formal reviews of an organization’s security program or specific compliance issues conducted on behalf of a third party. Assessments are less formal reviews of security controls that are typically requested by the security organization itself in an effort to engage in process improvement.
What do you call it when someone uses a made-up scenario to justify why they are approaching an individual?
Pretexting
What are three key objectives of cybersecurity programs?
Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
What are two different approaches to cloud access security broker (CASB) solutions?
Inline CASB solutions physically or logically reside in the connection path between the user and the service and can see requests before they are sent to the cloud service, allowing the CASB to block requests that violate policy. API-based CASB solutions do not interact directly with the user but rather interact directly with the cloud provider through the provider’s API. This approach provides direct access to the cloud service without custom user device configuration.
Who are the typical team members in an incident response team?
Members of management or organizational leadership, technical experts, communications and public relations staff, legal and human relations staff, law enforcement
List four common methods to detect malicious software and applications.
Signature-based detection; heuristic or behavior-based detection; artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML) systems; and sandboxing
What are three phases of a baseline’s life cycle?
Establishing a baseline, deploying the security baseline, and maintaining the baseline
What is brand impersonation?
An attack used in attempts to get users to log into their existing accounts, particularly for stores and banks.
What are the three common detection methods to identify unwanted and potentially malicious traffic?
Signature-based detections rely on a known hash or signature matching to detect a threat. Heuristic or behavior-based detections look for specific patterns or sets of actions that match threat behaviors. Anomaly-based detections establish a baseline for an organization or network and then flags when out-of-the-ordinary behavior occurs.
Describe key elements of DLP.
Key elements of data loss prevention (DLP) systems are the ability to classify data so that organizations know which data should be protected; data labeling or tagging functions, to support classification and management practices; policy management and enforcement functions used to manage data to the standards set by the organization; and monitoring and reporting capabilities, to quickly notify administrators or security practitioners about issues or potential problems.
What is SAML?
Security Assertions Markup Language (SAML) is an XML-based open standard for exchanging authentication and authorization information.
What do you call a document that provides best practices and recommendations related to a given concept, technology, or task?
A guideline
Describe SASE.
Secure access service edge (SASE) combines VPNs, SD-WAN, and cloud- based security tools like firewalls, CASBs, and zero-trust networks to provide secure access for devices regardless of their location.
What is the primary goal of change management?
To ensure that changes do not cause outages.
What are bots and what are botnets?
Bots are remotely controlled systems or devices that have a malware infection. Groups of bots are known as botnets, and botnets are used by attackers who control them to perform various actions ranging from additional compromises and infection to denial-of-service (DoS) attacks or acting as spam relays.
What are the advantages of guards?
Guards can make decisions that technical control systems cannot, and they provide additional capabilities by offering both detection and response capabilities. Guards can validate an individual’s identity, ensure that they enter only the areas they are supposed to, and ensure that they have signed a visitor log and that their signature matches a signature on file or on their ID card.
What defines an unskilled attacker?
The term unskilled attacker is a term used for people who use hacking techniques and premade tools but have limited skills.
Why should a company establish key performance indicators (KPIs)?
KPIs quantitatively measure vendors’ performance in order to ensure that vendors are meeting the agreed-upon standards.
What type of testing involves discussing what a staff member would do in a given scenario?
Tabletop exercises leverage discussions and conversations to help organizations prepare for actual events.
What are three types of data we must think about when developing a cryptographic system for the purpose of providing confidentiality?
Data at rest, data in transit, data in use
What are a few network hardening techniques?
The use of VLANs to segment different trust levels, user groups, or systems; placing IoT devices on a separate, protected VLAN; using a VLAN for guest networks or to isolate VoIP phones from workstations; changing default passwords; and removing unnecessary software.
What is organized crime?
Organized crime appears in any case where there is money to be made.
What does an SSO system allow?
Single sign-on (SSO) systems allow a user to log in with a single identity, and then use multiple systems or services without reauthenticating.
What are some examples of operational controls?
User access reviews, log monitoring, and vulnerability management
What is SDN?
Software-defined networking (SDN) uses software-based network configuration to control networks. SDN designs rely on controllers that manage network devices and configurations, centrally managing the software-defined network.
What are four major categories of penetration testing?
Physical penetration testing, offensive penetration testing, defensive penetration testing, and integrated penetration testing.
What do many organizations use to coordinate changes to information systems?
Maintenance windows.
What are two primary types of hypervisors and what are their differences?
Type I hypervisors, also known as bare-metal hypervisors, operate directly on top of the underlying hardware. This is the model most commonly used in datacenter virtualization because it is highly efficient. Type II hypervisors run as an application on top of an existing operating system. In this approach, the operating system supports the hypervisor and the hypervisor requests resources for each guest operating system from the host operating system.
What are the benefits of penetration testing?
Penetration testing provides us with knowledge that we can’t obtain elsewhere; in the event that attackers are successful, penetration testing provides us with an important blueprint for remediation; and penetration tests can provide us with essential, focused information on specific attack targets.
Name two choices you need to make when you implement encryption
The algorithm to use to perform encryption and decryption; the encryption key to use with that algorithm
What are keyloggers?
Programs that capture keystrokes from keyboards, although keylogger applications may also capture other input like mouse movement, touchscreen inputs, or credit card swipes from attached devices.
List all eight CVSS metrics and describe what kinds of measurements they evaluate.
The eight Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) metrics are attack vector metric, attack complexity metric, privileges required metric, user interaction metric, confidentiality metric, integrity metric, availability metric, and scope metric. The first four measures evaluate the exploitability of the vulnerability, whereas the next three evaluate the impact of the vulnerability. The eighth metric discusses the scope of the vulnerability.
How do you calculate the exploitability score for a vulnerability under CVSS?
Exploitability = 8.22 × AttackVector × AttackComplexity × PrivilegesRequired × UserInteraction
What is a hacktivist?
A hacktivist uses hacking techniques to accomplish some activist goal.
What is data encryption?
Encryption technology uses mathematical algorithms to protect information from prying eyes, both while it is in transit over a network and while it resides on systems.
When would cross-site scripting attacks occur?
Cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks occur when web applications allow an attacker to perform HTML injection, inserting their own HTML code into a web page.
What is RFID?
RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) is a relatively short range (from less than a foot of some passive tags to about 100 meters for active tags) wireless technology that uses a tag and a receiver to exchange information.
What are some examples of technical controls?
Firewall rules, access control lists, intrusion prevention systems, and encryption
List five common ways to assert or claim an identity.
Usernames, certificates, tokens, SSH keys, and smart cards.
List the four cloud deployment models.
Public cloud, private cloud, community cloud, and hybrid cloud.
List at least three key elements of the rules of engagement for a penetration test.
The timeline for the engagement and when testing can be conducted; valid targets; data handling requirements; what behaviors to expect from the target; what resources are committed to the test; legal concerns should also be addressed, including a review of the laws that cover the target organization, any remote locations, and any service providers who will be in-scope, and when and how communications will occur.
What are security zones?
Network segments, physical or virtual network segments, or other components of an infrastructure that are able to be separate from less secure zones through logical or physical means.
What is the function of security groups?
They define permissible network traffic.
What do administrators use as a way to securely operate in security zones with different security levels?
Jump servers
Name at least three types of viruses.
Memory-resident viruses, non-memory resident viruses, boot sector viruses, macro viruses, and email viruses
What are two different techniques to ensure that the system is secure that modern UEFI firmware can leverage?
Secure boot ensures that the system boots using only software that the original equipment manufacturer (OEM) trusts. Measured boot is intended to help prevent boot-level malware. Measured boot processes measure each component, starting with the firmware and ending with the boot start drivers.
What is the function of virtual private clouds?
VPCs are used to group systems into subnets and designate those subnets as public or private, depending on whether access to them is permitted from the Internet.
List and explain all three primary rules of role-based access control (RBAC).
Role assignment, which states that subjects can use only permissions that match a role they have been assigned; role authorization, which states that the subject’s active role must be authorized for the subject
—this prevents subjects from taking on roles they shouldn’t be able to; and permission authorization, which states that subjects can only use permissions that their active role is allowed to use.
What is static code analysis and what is dynamic code analysis?
Static code analysis (sometimes called source code analysis) is conducted by reviewing the code for an application. Static analysis does not run the program, instead it focuses on understanding how the program is written and what the code is intended to do. Dynamic code analysis relies on execution of the code while providing it with input to test the software.
What information does the output section provide on the report?
The output section of the report shows the detailed information returned by the remote system when probed for the vulnerability, including the name of the vulnerability, overall severity, detailed description, solution, references, port/hosts, vulnerability information, and risk information.
What is DLP and what can it do?
DLP is data loss prevention. DLP systems help organizations enforce information handling policies and procedures to prevent data loss and theft.
What is the primary responsibility of the hypervisor?
The primary responsibility of the hypervisor is enforcing isolation between virtual machines. This means that the hypervisor must present each virtual machine with the illusion of a completely separate physical environment dedicated for use by that virtual machine.
What is ransomware?
Ransomware is malware that takes over a computer then demands a ransom or payment.
What are two important roles served by risk assessment in the risk management process?
The risk analysis provides guidance in prioritizing risks so that the risks with the highest probability and magnitude are addressed first.
Quantitative risk analyses help determine whether the potential impact of a risk justifies the costs incurred by adopting a risk management approach.
What is a data custodian?
An individual or team who does not have controller or stewardship responsibility but is responsible for the secure safekeeping of information.
Name all security control types
Preventive controls, detective controls, corrective controls, deterrent controls, compensating controls, and directive controls
What is the function to calculate the impact sub-score?
ISS = 1 – [(1 – Confidentiality) × (1 – Integrity) × (1 – Availability)]
What are backdoors?
Backdoors are methods or tools that provide access that bypasses normal authentication and authorization procedures, allowing attackers access to systems, devices, or applications.
What is cloud computing?
A model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.
What does blind SQL injection (SQLi) mean and what are two forms of blind SQL injection?
Attackers use a technique called blind SQL injection to conduct an attack even when they don’t have the ability to view the results directly. Two forms of blind SQL injection are content-based and timing-based.
What is an access control vestibule?
An access control vestibule is a pair of doors that both require some form of authorized access to open. The first door opens after authorization, closes, and only after it is closed can the person who wants to enter provide their authorization to open the second door.
What is parameter pollution?
Parameter pollution is one technique that attackers have successfully used to defeat input validation controls.
What are the three major types of exercises that incident response teams use to prepare?
Tabletop, walkthroughs, simulations
What is typosquatting?
When attackers use misspelled and slightly off but similar to the legitimate site URLs and rely on the fact that people will mistype URLs and end up on their sites to drive up sales.
Give three ways that an attacker might discover a user’s password.
Conducting social engineering attacks that trick the user into revealing a password, either directly or through a false authentication mechanism; eavesdropping on unencrypted network traffic; and obtaining a dump of passwords from previously compromised sites and assuming that a significant number of users reuse their passwords from that site on other sites.
What are the differences between stateless firewalls and stateful firewalls?
Stateless firewalls (sometimes called packet filters) filter every packet based on data like the source and destination IP and port, the protocol, and other information that can be gleaned from the packet’s headers, whereas stateful firewalls (sometimes called dynamic packet filters) pay attention to the state of traffic between systems.
What are four types of documents in the information security policy framework?
Policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines
Name five factors that influence how often an organization decides to conduct vulnerability scans against its systems.
Name five factors that influence how often an organization decides to conduct vulnerability scans against its systems.
Name five factors that influence how often an organization decides to conduct vulnerability scans against its systems.
Guards can be fallible, and social engineering attempts can persuade guards to violate policies or even to provide attackers with assistance.
Guards are relatively expensive.
Name three password-related attacks.
Brute-force attacks, password spraying attacks, and dictionary attacks
Name the three techniques used by application testing and explain their differences.
Static testing (analyzes code without executing it), dynamic testing (executes code as part of the test, running all the interfaces that the code exposes to the user with a variety of inputs, searching for vulnerabilities), and interactive testing (combines static and dynamic testing, analyzing the source code while testers interact with the application through exposed interfaces).
What are three key threats to cybersecurity programs?
Disclosure, alteration, and denial
Disclosure, alteration, and denial
WPA-Personal uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) mode to provide authentication while protecting against offline dictionary attacks. This allows clients to authenticate without an authentication server infrastructure. The other is WPA-Enterprise, which relies on a RADIUS authentication server as part of an 802.1X implementation for authentication. This means users can have unique credentials and can be individually identified.
What are filesystem permissions?
They determine which accounts, users, groups, or services can perform actions like reading, writing, and executing (running) files.
What is a right-to-audit clause?
Part of the contract between the cloud service and an organization. A right-to-audit clause provides either a direct ability to audit the cloud provider or an agreement to use a third-party audit agency.
How does FDE work?
Full disk encryption (FDE) encrypts the disk and requires that the bootloader or a hardware device provide a decryption key and software or hardware to decrypt the drive for use.
What is a nation-state actor?
Nation-state actors are sponsored by or supported by nations and are typically sophisticated and highly resourced.
What’s the difference between Trojans and worms?
Trojans require user interaction, whereas worms are self-installed and spread themselves.
What do you call a geographic view of threat intelligence?
A threat map.
What are six steps in the incident response process?
Preparation, identification, containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned
What is the function of segmentation?
It allows network engineers to place systems of differing security levels and functions on different network subnets.
What is the process of conducting a digital investigation intended to find artifacts related to criminal activity or for litigation called?
E-discovery
What are playbooks?
Step-by-step guides intended to help incident response teams take the right steps in a given scenario.
What term describes an organization that offers services such as security monitoring, vulnerability management, incident response, and firewall management?
What term describes an organization that offers services such as security monitoring, vulnerability management, incident response, and firewall management?
How do you calculate the CVSS base score for a vulnerability?
If the impact is 0, the base score is 0.
If the scope metric is Unchanged, calculate the base score by adding together the impact and exploitability scores.
If the scope metric is Changed, calculate the base score by adding together the impact and exploitability scores and multiplying the result by 1.08.
The highest possible base score is 10. If the calculated value is greater than 10, set the base score to 10.
What’s the difference between cross-site scripting attacks and cross- site request forgery attacks?
They exploit a different trust relationship. XSS attacks exploit the trust that a user has in a website to execute code on the user’s computer. XSRF attacks exploit the trust that remote sites have in a user’s system to execute commands on the user’s behalf.
What is risk mitigation?
The process of applying security controls to reduce the probability and/or magnitude of a risk.
What is an on-path attack?
Occurs when an attacker causes traffic that should be sent to its intended recipient to be relayed through a system or device the attacker controls.
What is phishing?
Phishing is a broad term used to describe the fraudulent acquisition of information, often focused on credentials like usernames and passwords, as well as sensitive personal information like credit card numbers and related data.
What are three main methods used to exchange secret keys securely?
Offline distribution, public key encryption, and the Diffie–Hellman key exchange algorithm
List at least three backup and replication methods.
RAID, journaling, full and incremental backups, snapshots, images, copies of individual files, backup media, cloud backups, and off-site or on-site storage
What provides application-level virtualization?
A container.
What is the process of obtaining and protecting forensic data called?
Preservation
Give four important considerations that come into play with cloud and off-site third-party backup options.
Bandwidth requirements for both the backups themselves and restoration time if the backup needs to be restored partially or fully; time to retrieve files and cost to retrieve files; reliability is also crucial; and new security models may also be required for backups.
What are four security control categories?
Technical controls, operational controls, managerial controls, and physical controls
What are the key benefits of the cloud?
On-demand self-service computing, scalability, elasticity, measured service, agility and flexibility
What is the purpose of version control?
It ensures that developers and users have access to the latest versions of software and that changes are carefully managed throughout the release process.
Describe how zero trust works.
Zero trust presumes that there is no trust boundary and no network edge. Each action is validated when requested as part of a continuous authentication process and access is only allowed after policies are checked, including elements like identity, permissions, system configuration and security status, threat intelligence data review, and security posture.
What is frequency analysis?
Frequency analysis involves looking at the blocks of an encrypted message to determine if any common patterns exist.
Give three examples of features that an organization may want or need to ensure that mobile devices and the data they contain are secure.
Application management Content management. Remote wipe Geolocation and geofencing Screen locks, passwords, and PINs are all part of normal device security models to prevent unauthorized access.
Biometrics Context-aware authentication Containerization is an increasingly common solution to handling separation of work and personal use contexts on devices. Storage segmentation can be used to keep personal and business data separate as well. Full-device encryption (FDE)
What are four fundamental goals of cryptography?
Confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and nonrepudiation.
What does the following CVSS vector mean? CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:N/A:N
Attack VectorNetwork (score0.85); Attack ComplexityLow (score0.77); Privileges RequiredNone (score0.85); User InteractionNone (score0.85); ScopeUnchanged; ConfidentialityHigh (score0.56); IntegrityNone (score0.00); AvailabilityNone (score0.00).
Give some types of configuration settings recommended by CIS benchmark for Windows.
Setting the password history to remember 24 or more passwords and setting maximum passwords age to “60 or fewer days, but not 0,” preventing users from simply changing their passwords 24 times to get back to the same password while requiring password changes every 2 months. Setting the minimum password length to 14 or more characters. Requiring password complexity. Disabling the storage of passwords using reversible encryption
What is one of the fastest ways to decrease the attack surface of a system?
Reducing the number of open ports and services that it provides by disabling ports and protocols.
What is port security?
A capability that allows you to limit the number of MAC addresses that can be used on a single port.
What is the function of input validation?
Input validation helps prevent a wide range of problems, from cross- site scripting (XSS) to SQL injection (SQLi) attacks.
Give three examples of personnel management practices.
Least privilege, separation of duties, job rotation and mandatory vacations, clean desk space, onboarding and offboarding, nondisclosure agreements (NDAs), social media, and user training.
Name five common access control schemes.
Attribute-based access control (ABAC), role-based access control (RBAC), rule-based access control (RBAC or RuBAC), mandatory access control (MAC), and discretionary access control (DAC)
Explain true positive, false positive, true negative, and false negative
When a vulnerability scanner reports a vulnerability, this is known as a positive report. This report may either be accurate (a true positive report) or inaccurate (a false positive report). Similarly, when a scanner reports that a vulnerability is not present, this is a negative report. The negative report may either be accurate (a true negative report) or inaccurate (a false negative report).
List some major strengths of asymmetric key cryptography.
The addition of new users requires the generation of only one public- private key pair; users can be removed far more easily from asymmetric systems; key regeneration is required only when a user’s private key is compromised; asymmetric key encryption can provide integrity, authentication, and nonrepudiation; key distribution is a simple process; and no preexisting communication link needs to exist.
What information does the port/hosts section provide on the report?
The port/hosts section provides details on the server(s) that contain the vulnerability as well as the specific services on that server that have the vulnerability.
What are port mirrors and a SPAN?
A port mirror sends a copy of all the traffic sent to one switch port to another switch port for monitoring. A SPAN can do the same thing but can also combine traffic from multiple ports to a single port for analysis.
Describe EDR.
Endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools combine monitoring capabilities on endpoint devices and systems using a client or software agent with network monitoring and log analysis capabilities to collect, correlate, and analyze events. Key features of EDR systems are the ability to search and explore the collected data and to use it for investigations as well as the ability to detect suspicious data.
List the order of volatility.
From most volatile to least volatile:
CPU cache and register; ephemeral data such as the process table, kernel statistics, the system’s ARP cache, and similar information; the content of RAM; swap and pagefile information; files and data on a disk; the operating system (Windows Registry); data on devices such as smartphones, tables, IoT devices, and embedded or specialized systems; firmware; snapshots from VMs; network traffic and logs; and artifacts like devices, printouts, media, and other items.
What is threat intelligence?
Threat intelligence is the set of activities and resources available to cybersecurity professionals seeking to learn about changes in the threat environment.
What term describes the unauthorized modification of information?
Alteration is the unauthorized modification of information and is a violation of the principle of integrity. Denial is the unintended disruption of an authorized user’s legitimate access to information.
What type of attacker acts without proper authorization, but they do so with the intent of informing their targets of any security vulnerabilities?
A semi-authorized attacker
What do you call a network run over standard Internet connections but using multiple layers of encryption to provide anonymous communication?
Dark web
Give some examples of controls that might affect scan results.
Firewall settings, network segmentation, intrusion detection systems (IDSs), intrusion prevention systems (IPSs)
Organizations that want to determine what software and configurations are used on mobile devices should deploy what type of solution?
Mobile device management (MDM)
Name two mechanisms of action of DLP systems.
Pattern matching and watermarking
What is sandboxing?
The practice of running an application in a controlled or isolated environment to prevent it from interacting negatively with other system resources or applications.
Describe the continuous integration (CI) and continuous deployment (CD) pipeline.
Developer commits change, build process is triggered, build report is delivered, tests run against build, test report is delivered, and if successful, code is deployed.
Why might a certificate authority need to revoke a digital certificate?
The certificate was compromised (e.g., the certificate owner accidentally gave away the private key); the certificate was erroneously issued (e.g., the CA mistakenly issued a certificate without proper verification); the details of the certificate changed (e.g., the subject’s name changed); and the security association changed (e.g., the subject is no longer employed by the organization sponsoring the certificate).
What is the function of a web application firewall?
A web application firewall (WAF) plays an important role in protecting web applications against attacks. It sits in front of a web server and receives all network traffic headed to that server. It then scrutinizes the input headed to the application, performing input validation before passing the input to the web server.
What are three states where data might exist?
Data at rest, data in transit, data in use
List four types of protocol-level protections.
Loop prevention, broadcast storm prevention, bridge protocol data unit (BPDU) guard, and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) snooping
Explain parameterized queries.
Parameterized queries offer another technique to protect applications against injection attacks.
What are two major categories of modern ciphers and what are their methods of operation?
Block ciphers operate on “chunks,” or blocks, of a message and apply the encryption algorithm to an entire message block at the same time. Stream ciphers operate on one character or bit of a message (or data stream) at a time.
What are three components in the NIST framework?
The Framework Core, the Framework Implementation, and the Framework Profile
What is the formula to calculate the severity of a risk?
Risk Severity = Likelihood * Impact
What is open source threat intelligence?
Open source threat intelligence is threat intelligence that is acquired from publicly available sources.
What are runbooks?
The operational procedures guides that organizations use to perform actions.
Name some sources you can use when you build your threat research toolkit.
Vendor security information websites, vulnerability and threat feeds from vendors, government agencies, and private organizations, academic journals and technical publications, professional conferences and local industry group meetings, and social media accounts of prominent security professionals
Name two different environments that DLP systems work in.
Agent-based DLP and agentless DLP
List all steps in site restoration.
Restore network connectivity and a bastion or shell host; restore network security devices (firewalls, IPS); restore storage and database services; restore critical operational servers; restore logging and monitoring service; and restore other services as soon as possible.
What are some of the attributes used in an X.509 certificate?
Version of X.509; serial number; signature algorithm identifier; issuer name; validity period; subject’s Common Name (CN); certificates may optionally contain Subject Alternative Names (SAN) that allow you to specify additional items (IP addresses, domain names, and so on) to be protected by the single certificate; and subject’s public key
List three techniques that support removing systems, devices, or even entire network segments or zones.
Isolation, containment, segmentation
What are two variants that file inclusion attacks come in? How do they work?
Local file inclusion and remote file inclusion attacks. Local file inclusion attacks seek to execute code stored in a file located elsewhere on the web server. Remote file inclusion attacks allow the attacker to go a step further and execute code that is stored on a remote server.
What are three key lengths allowed by the AES cipher and what are their corresponding number of encryption rounds?
128-bit keys require 10 rounds of encryption; 192-bit keys require 12 rounds of encryption; and 256-bit keys require 14 rounds of encryption.
Name the phases of the software development life cycle (SDLC).
Planning, requirements definition, design, coding, testing, training and transition, ongoing operations and maintenance, and end-of-life decommissioning
What is homomorphic encryption?
Homomorphic encryption technology allows encrypting data in a way that preserves the ability to perform computation on that data.
What are two decision points for VPN implementation?
Whether the VPN will be used for remote access, or if it will be a site-to- site VPN; and whether they will be a split-tunnel VPN or a full-tunnel VPN
List three common elements in designs for redundancy.
Geographic dispersion of systems, separation of servers and other devices in datacenters, use of multiple network paths (multipath) solutions, redundant network devices, protection of power, systems and storage redundancy, and platform diversity
Name eight threat vectors.
Message-based threat vectors, wired networks, wireless networks, systems, files and images, removable devices, cloud, and supply chain
What are specific goals of confidentiality, integrity, and availability?
Confidentiality ensures that unauthorized individuals are not able to gain access to sensitive information; integrity ensures that there are no unauthorized modifications to information or systems, either intentionally or unintentionally; and availability ensures that information and systems are ready to meet the needs of legitimate users at the time those users request them.
What is an insider threat?
When an employee, contractor, vendor, or other individual with authorized access to information and systems uses that access to wage an attack against the organization
What key element separates logic bombs from other malware?
Logic bombs are functions or code that are placed inside other programs that will activate when set conditions are met instead of independent malicious programs.
What is a data controller?
The entity who determines the reasons for processing personal information and directs the methods of processing that data.
What are threats, vulnerabilities, and risks?
Threats are any possible events that might have an adverse impact on the confidentiality, integrity, and/or availability of our information or information systems. Vulnerabilities are weaknesses in our systems or controls that could be exploited by a threat. Risks occur at the intersection of a vulnerability and a threat that might exploit that vulnerability. A threat without a corresponding vulnerability does not pose a risk, nor does a vulnerability without a corresponding threat.
What are two types of access restrictions?
Geographic restrictions and permission restrictions
What are allow and deny lists?
An allow list allows you to build a list of software, applications, and other system components that are allowed to exist and run on a system. If they are not on the allow list, they will be removed, disabled, or will not be able to be installed. Deny lists are lists of software or applications that cannot be installed or run, rather than a list of what is allowed.
What are the three major components of a security assessment?
Security tests, security assessments, and security audits
What are HSMs?
Hardware security modules (HSMs) are typically external devices or plug-in cards used to create, store, and manage digital keys for cryptographic functions and authentication, as well as to offload cryptographic processing.
What are five basic requirements for a cryptographic hash function?
They accept an input of any length; they produce an output of a fixed length; the hash value is relatively easy to compute; the hash function is one-way (meaning that it is extremely hard to determine the input when provided with the output); and the hash function is collision free (meaning that it is extremely hard to find two messages that produce the same hash value).
What does isolation do?
Isolation goes a step further and completely cuts a system off from access to or from outside networks.
What is a zero-day attack?
Attacks that exploit vulnerabilities that are not yet disclosed.
Which term describes the points at which an unauthorized user could gain access?
Attack surface
What are three key security considerations when working with cloud storage?
Set permissions properly; consider high availability and durability options; and use encryption to protect sensitive data.
What is the substitution cipher?
A substitution cipher is a type of coding or ciphering system that changes one character or symbol into another.
What are APIs?
Application programming interfaces (APIs) are interfaces between clients and servers or applications and operating systems that define how the client should ask for information from the server and how the server will respond.
Describe the functions of DKIM, SPF, and DMARC in protecting email.
DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) allows organizations to add content to messages to identify them as being from their domain. Sender Policy Framework (SPF) allows organizations to publish a list of their authorized email servers. SPF records specify which systems are allowed to send email from that domain. Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance (DMARC) is a protocol that uses SPF and DKIM to determine if an email message is authentic.
What are three techniques to verify the authenticity of certificates and identify revoked certificates?
Certificate revocation lists (CRLs), Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), and certificate stapling
